1. Which of the following investigation is useful for Myocardial
metabolism and blood flow ?
a) CT scan
b) MRI scan
c) Positron Emission Tomography scan
d) Chest X-ray
a) CT scan
b) MRI scan
c) Positron Emission Tomography scan
d) Chest X-ray
Ans: c
2.Barr body is seen in
a) Buccal mucosa smear
b) RBC
c)WBC
d) Saliva
a) Buccal mucosa smear
b) RBC
c)WBC
d) Saliva
Ans: a
3. Which is not a acute phase reactant
a) C-Reactive protein
b) Haptoglobulin
c) Complement
d) alpha feto protein
a) C-Reactive protein
b) Haptoglobulin
c) Complement
d) alpha feto protein
Ans:d
4.Which of the following disorders have been shown to be
genetically transmitted by singleautosomal dominant enes?
a) Catatonic schizophrenia”
b) Phenyl ketonuria
c) Creutzfeldt – Jacob diseased
D) Huntington’s disease
Ans:d
a) Catatonic schizophrenia”
b) Phenyl ketonuria
c) Creutzfeldt – Jacob diseased
D) Huntington’s disease
Ans:d
5.False statement about fragile – X syndrome is ‘
a) Breakage in long arm of X chromosome
b) Common genetic disorder
c) Micro – orchidism
d) Long face
a) Breakage in long arm of X chromosome
b) Common genetic disorder
c) Micro – orchidism
d) Long face
Ans:c
6.C3 and C4 levels are raised in
a) Autoimmune disease
b) SLE
c)RA
d) All of the above
a) Autoimmune disease
b) SLE
c)RA
d) All of the above
Ans:a
7.Which one of the following statements about Natural Killer
(NK) cells is not correct?
a)NK cells can lyse tumour cells and virus infected cells in vitro, without previous sensitization
b)NK cells are found in peripheral blood and lymphoid tissue
c)NK cells are CD 3 positive
d)NK cells lyse the target cells by antibody degendent cellular cytotoxicity
a)NK cells can lyse tumour cells and virus infected cells in vitro, without previous sensitization
b)NK cells are found in peripheral blood and lymphoid tissue
c)NK cells are CD 3 positive
d)NK cells lyse the target cells by antibody degendent cellular cytotoxicity
Ans:c
8.The chromosomal anomaly in Klinefelter syndrome is
a)47XXY
d)45XO
c)47XXX
d)47XXXX
a)47XXY
d)45XO
c)47XXX
d)47XXXX
Ans:a
9.Down syndrome is due to
a) Trisomy 21
b) Translocation 13-15/21
c) Translocation 22/21
d) All of the above
a) Trisomy 21
b) Translocation 13-15/21
c) Translocation 22/21
d) All of the above
Ans:d
10.Interferons secreted by all except
a) Monocytes
b) Macrophages
c) Fibroblast
d) Lymphocytes
a) Monocytes
b) Macrophages
c) Fibroblast
d) Lymphocytes
Ans:a
11.The translocation in Burkitt’s lymphoma is between chromosome
a) 8 and 14
b) 9 and 22
c) 11 and 13
d) 8 and 12
a) 8 and 14
b) 9 and 22
c) 11 and 13
d) 8 and 12
Ans:a
12.Non immune hydrops is not a feature of which of the following
a) Chromosomal abnormalities
b) Alpha thalassemia
c) Renal malformations in foetus
d) Foetal cardiac abnormalities
a) Chromosomal abnormalities
b) Alpha thalassemia
c) Renal malformations in foetus
d) Foetal cardiac abnormalities
Ans:c
13.Carcinoembryonic antigen is seen in
a) Colorectal carcinoma
b) alcoholic cirrhosis
c) Emphysema
d) Diabetes mellitus
a) Colorectal carcinoma
b) alcoholic cirrhosis
c) Emphysema
d) Diabetes mellitus
Ans:a
14.DNA analysis can be done from all except
a) Monocyte
b) Lymphocyte
c) Fibroblast
d) Amnion cell
a) Monocyte
b) Lymphocyte
c) Fibroblast
d) Amnion cell
Ans:c
15.A stable heritable alteration of DNA is known as
a) Translocation
b) Mutation
c) Syngamy
d) Gene fixation
a) Translocation
b) Mutation
c) Syngamy
d) Gene fixation
Ans:b
16.Commonest blood group
a) A
b) B
c) AB
d)0
a) A
b) B
c) AB
d)0
Ans:d
17.One of the following is not a_ chromosomal breakage syndrome?
a) Bloom’s syndrome
b) Fredrichs Ataxia
c) Xeroderma pigmentosa
d) Fanconi’s Anemia
a) Bloom’s syndrome
b) Fredrichs Ataxia
c) Xeroderma pigmentosa
d) Fanconi’s Anemia
Ans:b
18.Commonest chromosomal syndrome is: *
a) Trisomy 13
b) Trisomy 17
c) Trisomy 21
d) Fragile X syndrome
a) Trisomy 13
b) Trisomy 17
c) Trisomy 21
d) Fragile X syndrome
Ans:c
19.Which is true of Type II hypersensitivity?
a) Antigen against tissue
b) IgE mediated
c) Antibody directed to tissue antigen
d) Immune complex mediated
a) Antigen against tissue
b) IgE mediated
c) Antibody directed to tissue antigen
d) Immune complex mediated
Ans:c
20.Analysis of protein antigen is done by
a) PCR
b) Western Blot
c) Southern blot
d) Northern blot
a) PCR
b) Western Blot
c) Southern blot
d) Northern blot
Ans:d
21.Vitamin D resistant rickets is inherited as
a) autosomal dominant
b) autosomal recessive
c) x-linked recessive
d) x-linked dominant
a) autosomal dominant
b) autosomal recessive
c) x-linked recessive
d) x-linked dominant
Ans:d
22.In Philadelphia chromosome there is translocation between
chromosomes
a) 11 and 22
b) 9 and 22
c) 5 and 13
d) 8 and 14
a) 11 and 22
b) 9 and 22
c) 5 and 13
d) 8 and 14
Ans:b
23.Hintingtons chorea is
a) Autosomal dominant
b) Autosomal recessive
c) X linked dominant
d) X linked recessive
a) Autosomal dominant
b) Autosomal recessive
c) X linked dominant
d) X linked recessive
Ans:a
24.The part of RNA which does not code for protein is
a) Exon
b) Introns
c) Codon
d) Meson
a) Exon
b) Introns
c) Codon
d) Meson
Ans:b
25.All of the following are X-linked recessive disorder except
a) Myotonic Dystrophy ”
b) Christmas disease
c) Hemophilia
d) Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy
a) Myotonic Dystrophy ”
b) Christmas disease
c) Hemophilia
d) Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy
Ans:a
26.The passive transfer of delayed hypersensitivity in man is
mediated by
a) Interferon
b) Skin reactor factor
c) Lymphotoxin
d) Transfer factor
a) Interferon
b) Skin reactor factor
c) Lymphotoxin
d) Transfer factor
Ans:d
27.Which of the following is true concerning Ig M?
a)It is the reaginic antibody
b)It is important in the first few days of the primary immune response
c)It peaks after Ig G has reached its peak
d)It is the smallest of the immunoglobulin molecules
a)It is the reaginic antibody
b)It is important in the first few days of the primary immune response
c)It peaks after Ig G has reached its peak
d)It is the smallest of the immunoglobulin molecules
Ans:b
28.Which HLA antigens are recognized by cells
a)T-helper
b)T-effector
c)T-suppressor
d)Bcell
a)T-helper
b)T-effector
c)T-suppressor
d)Bcell
Ans:a
29. Pataus syndrome due to
a) Trisomy 21
b) Trisomy 18
c) 18 P
d) Trisomy 13
a) Trisomy 21
b) Trisomy 18
c) 18 P
d) Trisomy 13
Ans:d
30. Treatment of serum sickness may include all except:
a) Epinephrine
b) Steroids
c) Gammaglobulin
d) Antihistamines
a) Epinephrine
b) Steroids
c) Gammaglobulin
d) Antihistamines
Ans:c
31.Opsonizing toxins are
a)C3a
b)C3b
c)C5a
d)C5-C9
a)C3a
b)C3b
c)C5a
d)C5-C9
Ans:b
32. HLA-B27 associated with all except
a) Psoriasis
b) Behcets syndrome
c) Reiters syndrome
d) Ankylosing spondylitis
a) Psoriasis
b) Behcets syndrome
c) Reiters syndrome
d) Ankylosing spondylitis
Ans:b
33.Recombinant DNA technique was first done on genome of
a)E.coli
b)Bacteroids
c) Pseudomonas
d) Proteus
a)E.coli
b)Bacteroids
c) Pseudomonas
d) Proteus
Ans:a
34.The following disease are transmitted by autosomal recessive
genes
a) Idiopathic hemochromatosis
b)Von Reckling Hausen’s disease
c) Von Willebrand disease
d) Cystic fibrosi
a) Idiopathic hemochromatosis
b)Von Reckling Hausen’s disease
c) Von Willebrand disease
d) Cystic fibrosi
Ans:d
35.Otospongiosis is
a) autosomal dominant
b) autosomal recessive
c) X-linked dominant
d) X-linked recessive
a) autosomal dominant
b) autosomal recessive
c) X-linked dominant
d) X-linked recessive
Ans:a
36.Not a X-linked Recessive disease
a) Laurence Moon Beidel syndrome
b) Nephrogenic diabetes
c) Muscular dystrophy
d) Colour blindness
a) Laurence Moon Beidel syndrome
b) Nephrogenic diabetes
c) Muscular dystrophy
d) Colour blindness
Ans:a
37.Which drug is immunomodulator?
a) Levamisole
b) Methotrexate
c) Ifosfamide
d) Procarbazine
a) Levamisole
b) Methotrexate
c) Ifosfamide
d) Procarbazine
Ans:a
38.Bone marrow transplantation as a treatment modality can be
advisedin all of the following cases which are newly diagnosed except
a) Combined immunodeficiency
b) CML
c) Aplastic anemia
d) All
a) Combined immunodeficiency
b) CML
c) Aplastic anemia
d) All
Ans:d
39.Interferon is not used in which of the following:
a) Hairy cell leukemia
b) Chronic myeloid leukemia
c) Chronic hepatitis B infection
d) Myelomonocytic leukemia
a) Hairy cell leukemia
b) Chronic myeloid leukemia
c) Chronic hepatitis B infection
d) Myelomonocytic leukemia
Ans:d
40.Which among the following does not secrete interleukin I
alpha
a) Lymphocyte
b) Fibroblast
c) Macrophage
d) Neutrophils
a) Lymphocyte
b) Fibroblast
c) Macrophage
d) Neutrophils
Ans:d
41.Which of the following immunocompetent cells is concerned
with cell mediated immunity and humoral immunity
a) Monocytes
b) Neutrophils
c) Eosinophils
d) Lymphocytes
a) Monocytes
b) Neutrophils
c) Eosinophils
d) Lymphocytes
Ans:d
42. Barrbody is seen in
a) turners syndrome
b) Klinefelters syndrome
c) testicular feminization
d) light chain IgG
a) turners syndrome
b) Klinefelters syndrome
c) testicular feminization
d) light chain IgG
Ans:b
43. Bence Jones proteins are
a) heavy chain IgG
b) present in bone marrow
c) seen in lymphoma
d) 46 XY
a) heavy chain IgG
b) present in bone marrow
c) seen in lymphoma
d) 46 XY
Ans:d
44. DNA analysis is useful for all except
a) Thalassemia
b) Hemophilia
c) Ectodermal dysplasia
d) Duchenne’s dystrophy
a) Thalassemia
b) Hemophilia
c) Ectodermal dysplasia
d) Duchenne’s dystrophy
Ans:c
45. Disease where gene therapy has been attempted or considered
include:
a) Adenosine deaminase deficiency
b) Hemophilia A
c) Cystic fibrosis
d) Hypercholesterolemia
e) All of the above
a) Adenosine deaminase deficiency
b) Hemophilia A
c) Cystic fibrosis
d) Hypercholesterolemia
e) All of the above
Ans:e
46.Passive transfer of delayed hypersensitivity in man is
mediated by
a) Interferon
b) Skin reactor factor
c) Lymphotoxin
d) Transfer factor
a) Interferon
b) Skin reactor factor
c) Lymphotoxin
d) Transfer factor
Ans:d
47. True about transmission of an x-linked recessive disease are
a)All daughters will have disease
b)All sons will be carriers
c)50% of sons & 50% of daughters will have disease
d)50% of sons of an affected mother will contract disease
a)All daughters will have disease
b)All sons will be carriers
c)50% of sons & 50% of daughters will have disease
d)50% of sons of an affected mother will contract disease
Ans:b
48. Single gene disorder is
a) glycogen storage disease
b) retinoblastoma
c)DM
d)HT
a) glycogen storage disease
b) retinoblastoma
c)DM
d)HT
Ans:b
49.Edwards syndrome is
a) Trisomy 21
b) Trisomy 18
c) Trisomy 13
d)5P
e) 18Q
a) Trisomy 21
b) Trisomy 18
c) Trisomy 13
d)5P
e) 18Q
Ans:b
50.The commonest cause of primary immuno deficiency is
a) Ig A deficiency
b) Agamma globulinemia
c) Congenital immunodeficiency
d) Acquired immuno deficiency
a) Ig A deficiency
b) Agamma globulinemia
c) Congenital immunodeficiency
d) Acquired immuno deficiency
Ans:a
MEDICINE
Objective type Questions and Answers ::
51.Cyclosporin mainly affects
a) CD4+cells
b) CD 8 cells
c) B-cells
d) CD 3 +cells
a) CD4+cells
b) CD 8 cells
c) B-cells
d) CD 3 +cells
Ans:a
52) AH of the following statements regarding mast cells are true
except
a) they contain heparin proteoglycan
b) their number is increased in patients with bronchial asthma
c) disodium cromoglycate brings about their degranulation
d) they have receptors for Fc portion of IE.
a) they contain heparin proteoglycan
b) their number is increased in patients with bronchial asthma
c) disodium cromoglycate brings about their degranulation
d) they have receptors for Fc portion of IE.
Ans:c
53. Wilms tumor is characterized by which chromosomal aberration
a) lip-
b) llq-^
c) 13p-
d) 13q-
a) lip-
b) llq-^
c) 13p-
d) 13q-
Ans:a
54. Percentage of Rh positivity is
a) 80%
c)92%
d)93%
b) 85%
a) 80%
c)92%
d)93%
b) 85%
Ans:d
55. All are X linked diseases except
a) Myotonic dystrophy
b)G6PD
c) Fabrys disease
d) Hemophilia A
a) Myotonic dystrophy
b)G6PD
c) Fabrys disease
d) Hemophilia A
Ans: a
56. Father has Autosomal dominant disease. Mother is normal with
no family history of the disease. What are the chances of son getting the
disease
a) 100%
b)50%
c)25%
d)0%
a) 100%
b)50%
c)25%
d)0%
Ans:b
57. Dominant trait expresses in
a) homozygous state
b) heterozygous state
c) both homo and heterozygous state
d) males
a) homozygous state
b) heterozygous state
c) both homo and heterozygous state
d) males
Ans: c
58.Most important HLA for organ transplantation and tissue
typing
a) HLA-A
b)HLA-B
c)HLA-C
d)HLA-D
a) HLA-A
b)HLA-B
c)HLA-C
d)HLA-D
Ans:d
59.All of the following are autosomal dominant disorders except
a) tuberous sclerosis
b) polyposis coli
c) cystic fibrosis
d) myotonic dystonia
a) tuberous sclerosis
b) polyposis coli
c) cystic fibrosis
d) myotonic dystonia
Ans:c
60.X linked recessive disease is characterized by
a) Vertical transmission
b) 50% female carriers if male is affected
c) 50% male affected if female is diseased
d) 50% male carriers if female is diseased
a) Vertical transmission
b) 50% female carriers if male is affected
c) 50% male affected if female is diseased
d) 50% male carriers if female is diseased
Ans:d
61.Achondroplasia is inherited as
a) autosomal dominant
b) autosomal recessive
c) x-linkeddonlinant
d) x-linked recessive
a) autosomal dominant
b) autosomal recessive
c) x-linkeddonlinant
d) x-linked recessive
Ans:a
62.All are Autosomal recessive except
a)-Cystic fibrosis
b) Hypercholesterolemia
c) Wilsons disease
d) Sickle cell anemia
a)-Cystic fibrosis
b) Hypercholesterolemia
c) Wilsons disease
d) Sickle cell anemia
Ans:b
63. Short stature with widely spread nipples and webbing of neck
is seen in
a) Down’s syndrome
b) Turner’s syndrome
c) klinefelter’s syndrome
d) Edward’s syndrome
a) Down’s syndrome
b) Turner’s syndrome
c) klinefelter’s syndrome
d) Edward’s syndrome
Ans:b
64.Pick out product manufactured at present by genetic
engineering
a) Interferons
b) Rabies vaccine
c) Gammaglobulin
d) Tuberous sclerosis
a) Interferons
b) Rabies vaccine
c) Gammaglobulin
d) Tuberous sclerosis
Ans:b
65.All of the following are autosomal recessive except
a) Albinism
b) Alkaptonuria
c) Cystic fibrosis
d) Tuberous sclerosis
a) Albinism
b) Alkaptonuria
c) Cystic fibrosis
d) Tuberous sclerosis
Ans:d
66.Which one of the following immunoglobulins
is^characteristically elevajtedm filariasis?
a)IgA
b)IgE
c)IgG
d)TgSr
a)IgA
b)IgE
c)IgG
d)TgSr
Ans:b
‘
67.Which is not X-recessive?
a) beta thalassemia
b) G6PD deficiency
c) hemophilia A
d) colour blindness
‘
67.Which is not X-recessive?
a) beta thalassemia
b) G6PD deficiency
c) hemophilia A
d) colour blindness
Ans:a
68.Commonest chromosomal anomaly
a) fragile
b) trisomy 21
c) trisomy 13
d) trisomy 18
a) fragile
b) trisomy 21
c) trisomy 13
d) trisomy 18
Ans:b
69.Interferon is not used in
a) CML
b) Polymyositis
c) Hairy cell leukaemia
d) Chronic hepatitis C infection
a) CML
b) Polymyositis
c) Hairy cell leukaemia
d) Chronic hepatitis C infection
Ans:b
70. Mode of action of actinomycin – D is to prevent:
a) RNA elongation
b) DNA synthesis
c) DNA elongation
d) None of the above
a) RNA elongation
b) DNA synthesis
c) DNA elongation
d) None of the above
Ans:a
71. A 15-year old girl presents with history of 7 days high
fever, toxic appearance, anaemia, petechiae over skin, ulcers in the mouth and
mild hepatosplenomegaly with total count of 30,000/cu mm.The most important
investigation for diagnosis would be:
a) Blood culture
b) Splenic puncture
c) Liver biopsy
d) Bone marrow aspiration
a) Blood culture
b) Splenic puncture
c) Liver biopsy
d) Bone marrow aspiration
Ans:a
72. Chemoprophylaxis is used in all except
a) Malaria
b) Typhoid
c) Meningococcal meningitis
b) gram negative enterobacteriae
a) Malaria
b) Typhoid
c) Meningococcal meningitis
b) gram negative enterobacteriae
Ans:b
73. Endotoxic shock is due to
a) gram positive bacteria
b) gram negitive entrobacteriae
c) viruses
d) gas gangrene
Ans:b
a) gram positive bacteria
b) gram negitive entrobacteriae
c) viruses
d) gas gangrene
Ans:b
74. The endotoxin which leads to endotoxic shocks is actually
a) Lipoprotein
b) Lipopolysaccharide
c) Polysaccharide
d) Polyamide
a) Lipoprotein
b) Lipopolysaccharide
c) Polysaccharide
d) Polyamide
Ans:b
75.Probenecid excretion is increased by
a) penicillin
b) cephalosporin
c)NaHC03-
d) tetracycline
a) penicillin
b) cephalosporin
c)NaHC03-
d) tetracycline
Ans:a
76.Drug of choice for Pneumocystis carini
a) Tetracycline
b) Cotrimoxazole
c) Penicillin
d) Cifran
a) Tetracycline
b) Cotrimoxazole
c) Penicillin
d) Cifran
Ans:b
77. Immunoglobulin administration is life saving in one of the
following conditions:
a) Rabies
b) Clostridium
c) Poliomyelitis
d) Typhoid
a) Rabies
b) Clostridium
c) Poliomyelitis
d) Typhoid
Ans:b
78. Pick out the vaccine that gives lifelong protection after
the initial course of vaccination
a) TAB vaccine
b)HDCV
c) Measles vaccine
d)BCG vaccine
b)HDCV
c) Measles vaccine
d)BCG vaccine
Ans:c
79. Tetracyclines are useful in infections of
a) Rickettsia
b)Chlamydiae
c)LGV
d)All
a) Rickettsia
b)Chlamydiae
c)LGV
d)All
Ans:d
80.True statement regarding Ciprofloxacin is
a) Excreted mainly through bile
b) Antacid when given with, facilitates absorption
c) It can be given only orally
d) Belongs to Fluroquinolones group
a) Excreted mainly through bile
b) Antacid when given with, facilitates absorption
c) It can be given only orally
d) Belongs to Fluroquinolones group
Ans:d
81.The antibiotic which is acid labile is
a)Ampicillin
b) Cloxacillin
c)Gentamicin
d) Methicillin
a)Ampicillin
b) Cloxacillin
c)Gentamicin
d) Methicillin
Ans:d
82.Cinchonism is due to
a) Quinine
b)Chloramine
c)Digoxin
d)Digitoxin
a) Quinine
b)Chloramine
c)Digoxin
d)Digitoxin
Ans:a
83.Drug of choice in pseudomonas septicemia is:
a) Methicillin
b) Ceftazidime
c) Moxalactum
d) Piperacillin
a) Methicillin
b) Ceftazidime
c) Moxalactum
d) Piperacillin
Ans:d
84. The half life of chloroquine is :
a) 6 hours
b) 7 days
c) 12 hours
d) 24 hours
a) 6 hours
b) 7 days
c) 12 hours
d) 24 hours
Ans:b
85.Which of the following combination is not synergistic
a)Penicillin and streptomycin in endocarditis
b)Amphotericin B and flucytosine in cryptococcal meningitis
c)Penicillin and chlortetracycline in pneumococcal meningitis
d)Sulphamethoxazole and trimethoprim in UT1
a)Penicillin and streptomycin in endocarditis
b)Amphotericin B and flucytosine in cryptococcal meningitis
c)Penicillin and chlortetracycline in pneumococcal meningitis
d)Sulphamethoxazole and trimethoprim in UT1
Ans:c
86.Nosocomial pneumonia is caused most commonly by
a) streptococcal
b) mycoplasma
c) gram negative bacteria
d) viruses
a) streptococcal
b) mycoplasma
c) gram negative bacteria
d) viruses
Ans:c
87. The persistence of one of the following clinical feature
indicates very poor prognosis in a case
of endotoxin shock:
a) Generalized weakness
b) Low volume pulse
c) Tachycardia
d) Oliguria
e) Restlessness
of endotoxin shock:
a) Generalized weakness
b) Low volume pulse
c) Tachycardia
d) Oliguria
e) Restlessness
Ans:d
88.Treatment of travellers diarrhoea is
a) sulfaguanidine
b) Diphenoxylate and atropine
c) metronidazole
d) Chloromycetin and Streptomycin
a) sulfaguanidine
b) Diphenoxylate and atropine
c) metronidazole
d) Chloromycetin and Streptomycin
Ans:b
89. The following are characteristic of central fever except
a) No diurnal variation
b) No sweating
c) decreased response to External cooling
d) Resistant to antipyretics
a) No diurnal variation
b) No sweating
c) decreased response to External cooling
d) Resistant to antipyretics
Ans:c
90. Ampicillin is used in all except
a) Pseudomonas
b) Proteus
c) Streptococci
d) Staphylococci
a) Pseudomonas
b) Proteus
c) Streptococci
d) Staphylococci
Ans:d
91.First generation cephalosporins are not effective in…
infection
a) Pseudomonas
b) Proteus
c) Streptococci
d) Staphylococci
a) Pseudomonas
b) Proteus
c) Streptococci
d) Staphylococci
Ans:a
92.Which of the following is a useful bedside test in septicemia
assessment?
a) Peripheral smear
b) Micro ESR assay
c)CRP levels
d) Urine microscopy
a) Peripheral smear
b) Micro ESR assay
c)CRP levels
d) Urine microscopy
Ans:a
93.PTJO in a farmer dealing with goats milk is usually due to
a) Anthrax
b) Brucella
c) Mycobacterium
d) Histoplasma
a) Anthrax
b) Brucella
c) Mycobacterium
d) Histoplasma
Ans:b
94.Drug choice for pseudomonas septicemia are
a) carbenicillin
b) Gentamicin
c) tobramycin plus ticarcillin
d) Histoplasma
a) carbenicillin
b) Gentamicin
c) tobramycin plus ticarcillin
d) Histoplasma
Ans:c
95.Prognosis is related to incubation period in
a) Cholera
b) Rabies
c) Tetanus
d) Diphtheria
a) Cholera
b) Rabies
c) Tetanus
d) Diphtheria
Ans:c
96.The following statement about arboviruses is FALSE
a)Complications include encephalitis and Hemorrhage
b)Transmission is typically by the ingestion of infected water
c)They occur predominantly in temperate climates
d)Incubation period is usually more than one month
a)Complications include encephalitis and Hemorrhage
b)Transmission is typically by the ingestion of infected water
c)They occur predominantly in temperate climates
d)Incubation period is usually more than one month
Ans:b
97.The most common cause of seizures in a patient
a) Toxoplasmosis
b)Cryptococcal meningitis
c) Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathyof AIDS is
a) Toxoplasmosis
b)Cryptococcal meningitis
c) Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathyof AIDS is
Ans:a
98. HIV is a
a) Retrovirus
b) Flavivirus
c) Oncovirus
d) Arbovirus
a) Retrovirus
b) Flavivirus
c) Oncovirus
d) Arbovirus
Ans:a
99. Bronchopneumonia due to measles occurs because of
a) Running nose
b) Sinusitis
c) Immuno modulation
d) Bronchial obstruction
a) Running nose
b) Sinusitis
c) Immuno modulation
d) Bronchial obstruction
Ans:c
100. The most common ophthalmic lesion in AIDS is
a) Hard exudates
b) Cotton wool spots
c) Angioid Streaks
d) Microaneurysms
a) Hard exudates
b) Cotton wool spots
c) Angioid Streaks
d) Microaneurysms
Ans:b
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