125 Top DERMATOLOGY Multiple Choice Questions and Answers pdf

aDERMATOLOGY Multiple Choice Questions and Answers pdf :-

1. Which of the following would be prescribed for acne?
A. Actiq
B. Actonel
C. Accu-Check
D. Accutane

Ans: D

2. An absence of pigment in the skin is called
A. acanthosis nigricans
B. albinism
C. melanism
D. xanthoderma

Ans: B

3. A burn which involves 2 layers of the skin and estroys the nerves and blood vessels, but does not go down to muscle or bone is a
A. first-degree burn
B. second-degree burn
C. third-degree burn
D. full-thickness burn

Ans: B

4. Death of tissue associated with loss of blood supply to the affected area is called
A. cellulitis
B. eczema
C. gangrene
D. psoriasis

Ans: C

5. An acute eruption of intensely itchy papules or wheals is called
A. acne vulgaris
B. pityriasis rosea
C. psoriasis
D. urticaria (hives.

Ans: D

6. Moles with the potential to develop into malignant melanoma are
A. intradermal nevi
B. dysplastic nevi
C. giant nevi
D. verrucae

Ans: B

7. The type of cyst contains yellowish sebum and is commonly found on the scalp, vulva, and scrotum.
A. papule
B. sebaceous cyst
C. ulcer
D. vesicle

Ans: B

8. Excessive hair on the face or body, especially in women, is called:
A. albinism
B. atrichia
C. alopecia
D. hirsutism

Ans: D

9. The half-moon shaped, white area located at the base of a fingernail is called the
A. basal layer
B. cuticle
C. lunula
D. stratum

Ans: C

10. An epidermal growth caused by a virus (wart. is called a
A. impetigo
B. melanoma
C. nevus
D. verruca

Ans: D


11. Yellowing of the skin is indicative of
A. hyperbillirubinemia
B. hyperuricemia
C. hyperkalemia
D. hyporeninemia

Ans: A

12. Which of the following is a combining form meaning skin?
A. adip/o
B. cutane/o
C. pachy/o
D. xanth/o

Ans: B

13. A chronic dermatitis of unknown etiology in patients with a history of allergy is called
A. actinic dermatitis
B. atopic dermatitis
C. stasis dermatitis
D. seborrheic dermatitis

Ans: B

14. The outermost layer of skin is the
A. dermis
B. endodermis
C. epidermis
D. hypodermis

Ans: C

15. Of the three layers of the skin, which is the thick, fat-containing layer?
A. dermis
B. epidermis
C. epithelium
D. subcutaneous tissue

Ans: D

16. The brown-black pigment of the skin that is transferred to other epidermal cells and gives the skin its color is called
A. albumin
B. collagen
C. keratin
D. melanin

Ans: D

17. Which of the following is transcribed correctly?
A. The patient was given metronidazole for rosacea and Lamisil for onychomycosis.
B. The patient was given metronidazole for roseola and Lamisil for onychomycosis.
C. The patient was given metronidazole for roseola and Lamisil for onychomycosis.
D. The patient was given metroprolol for rosacea and Lamisil for onychomycosis.

Ans: A

18. Apocrine glands produce
A. mucus
B. sebum
C. sweat
D. keratin

Ans: C

19. Which of the following infections is also known as ringworm?
A. folliculitis
B. herpes simplex
C. impetigo
D. tinea corporis

Ans: D

20. Another term for itching is
A. dermatitis
B. keratosis
C. petechiae
D. pruritus

Ans: D

21. The skin, hair, nails, and glands all make up this system of the body.
A. integumentary system
B. lymphatic system
C. musculoskeletal system
D. nervous system

Ans: A

22. Clotrimazole and nystatin are both
A. topical antifungals
B. anti-itch creams
C. topical antibiotics
D. used to treat eczema

Ans: A

23. Which skin neoplasm is associated with an increase in the growth of cells in the keratin layer of the epidermis caused by pressure or friction?
A. callus
B. keloid
C. keratosis
D. leukoplakia

Ans: A

24. In this condition, there is a scaly dermatitis affecting parts of the skin that are supplied by oil glands.
A. chronic dermatitis
B. contact dermatitis
C. eczema
D. seborrheic dermatitis

Ans: D

25. Which of the following is a fungal infection?
A. lichen planus
B. keratosis
C. suborrhea
D. tinea capitis

Ans: D

26. A groove or a crack-like sore is called a (an.
A. fissure
B. nodule
C. polyp
D. ulcer

Ans: A

27. Which of the following is transcribed correctly?
A. This 58-year-old woman had a biopsy proven melanoma. Clarks level 1, on the left cheek.
B. This 58-year-old woman had a biopsy-proven melanoma. Clark’s level 1, on the left cheek.
C. This 58-year-old woman had a biopsy proven melena. Clark level 1, on the left cheek
D. This 58-year-old woman had a biopsy-proven melanoma. Clark level 1, on the left cheek. (Correct
Ans: D

28. Follicular dilation involving the nose and portions of the cheeks, erythema, papules, and pustules are classic signs of this dermatologic disorder.
A. acne cosmetica
B. acne pustulosa
C. acne rosacea
D. acne vulgaris

Ans: C

29. A skin disorder most often caused by the herpes virus and consisting of red lesions that look like targets is
A. candidiasis
B. erythema multiforme
C. hirsutism
D. keratosis pilaris

Ans: B

30. The vascular layer of skin is the
A. dermis
B. epidermis
C. stratum corneum unguis
D. hypodermis

Ans: A

31. When scraping for demodex, it may be helpful to pinch the skin while you scrape.
A. True
B. False

Ans: A

32. Impetigo is confined to the glabrous areas of a dog’s body
A. True
B. False

Ans: A

33. What is the growth phase of a hair follicle?
A. Anagen
B. Catagen
C. Growagen
D. Telogen
Ans: A

34. What is one way to distinguise ARF from FAD?
A. Excoriations
B. Papules
C. GI Signs
D. Scratching of muzzle

Ans: C

35. Atopy is curable
A. True
B. False

Ans: B

36. Animals with fur have what type of follicles?
A. Simple
B. Intermediate
C. Compound
D. Fuzzy

Ans: C

37. When is a dog “cured” of demodex?
A. Disease free for 1 year
B. After 2 negative scrapes
C. Never
D. After 1 negative scrape

Ans: A

38. Dermatophilosis is zoonotic
A. True
B. False

Ans: A

39. Accral lick dermatitis can be a behavioral problem
A. True
B. False

Ans: A

40. Superficial pyoderma is a secondary disease process.
A. True
B. False

Ans: A

41. Eosinophillic Granuloma Complex is a disease in and of itself.
A. True
B. False

Ans: B

42. FAD is what type of reaction?
A. Type I (Missed.
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV (Missed.

Ans: A,D

43. All in contact dogs should be treated in a scabies case.
A. True
B. False

Ans: A

44. Canine FAD lesions are usually found on the rump, feline are on the head.
A. True
B. False

Ans: A

45. Failure to treat localized demedocosis will cause the dog to develop generalized demedocsis later on.
A. True
B. False

Ans: B

46. What is the resting phase of a hair follicle?
A. Anagen
B. Catagen
C. Relaxagen
D. Telogen

Ans: D

47. Notoedres can only infect cats
A. True
B. False

Ans: B

48. Wetting an area down with alchohol before plucking hairs for culture will decrease inaccurate tests.
A. True
B. False

Ans: A

49. What is the signalment for pemphigus foliaceus?
A. Any age
B. Elderly animals
C. Very young puppies
D. Young to middle aged adults

Ans: D

50. Otitis externa is very common in dogs with scabies.
A. True
B. False

Ans: B

51. Juvenile Cellulitis can appear in days
A. True
B. False

Ans: A

52. Age of onsent for puppy pyoderma
A. 2-9 Months
B. 3-6 months
C. 6 months- 1 year
D. 8 weeks-6 months

Ans: A

53. What is the transition phase of a hair follicle?
A. Telogen
B. Catagen
C. Zenagen
D. Anagen

Ans: B

54. In atopy, the allergens are absorbed via the skin
A. True
B. False

Ans: A

55. Puppies grow out of their puppy coats
A. True
B. False

Ans: B

56. When culturing a pustule, the area must first be cleaned
A. True
B. False

Ans: A

57. Juvenile Cellulitis in dogs usually affects what part of the body
A. Face
B. Glabrous areas
C. Body wide
D. Axilla

Ans: A

58. What is the signalment for juvenile cellulitis
A. 6 month
B. 1 year
C. 3-16 week old puppies
D. 8-12 weeks

Ans: C

59. Demodex mites live where?
A. Stratum Corneum
B. All skin layers
C. In the follicle
D. On the hair shaft

Ans: C

60. FAD and insect hypersensitivity in horses are both similar not only in their presentation, but also in their “cure”.
A. True
B. False

Ans: A
DERMATOLOGY Objective type Questions and Answers ::

61. Demodectic mange is pruritic
A. True
B. False

Ans: B

62. It is necessary to clean the environment to eliminate ringworm
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

63. Which AB is responsible for atopy?
A. IgA
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgW

Ans: B

64. If not pruritic, linear granulomas should be treated how
A. Prednisone
B. Prednisolone
C. Scientific Neglect
D. Cyclosporin

Ans: C

65. Where are scabies mites found?
A. Hair Follicles
B. Stratum Corneum
C. Sub-epidermal
D. Throughout the skin layers

Ans: B

66 Surface irritation and inflammation caused by frictional trauma of skin on skin
A. Skin Fold Dermatitis
B. Furunculosis
C. Alopecia
D. Vesicle

Ans: A

67. Small elevation of skin containing purulent material
A. Papule
B. Pustule
C. Vesicle
D. Cyst

Ans: B

68. An erosion exposes the dermis underneath
A. True
B. False

Ans: B

69. An ulcer is:
A. Shallow Epidermal defect
B. Break in epidermis with exposure of dermis
C. Not good for coffee drinkers
D. A primary problem

Ans: B

70. Alopecia is:
A. Full or partial hair loss
B. Difficult for men to deal with
C. Only full hair loss
D. Never where you want it to be

Ans: A

71. Pyotraumatic Dermatitis is also known as a “hot spot”
A. True
B. False

Ans: A

72. Excessive scaling is:
A. Gross
B. Seborrhea
C. Dandruff
D. Epidermal Collarette

Ans: B

73. A vesicle is a sharply circumscribed lesion containing fluid
A. True
B. False

Ans: A

74. What is another term for intertrigo?
A. Furunculosis
B. Pyotraumatic Dermatitis
C. Skin Fold Dermatitis

Ans: C

75. Circumscribed, developmental skin defect
A. Nevus
B. Macule
C. Papule
D. Pustule

Ans: A

76. Scale is an accumulation of fragments of stratum corneum
A. True
B. False

Ans: A

77. Inflammation secondary to rupture of a hair follicle
A. Furunculosis
B. Pustule
C. Vesicle
D. Plaque

Ans: A

78. Remnants of a pustule, vesicle, or bulla can be
A. Epidermal Collarette
B. Scale
C. Plaque
D. Cyst

Ans: A

79. Circumscribed lesion that is raised and consists of edema is urticaria
A. True
B. False

Ans: A

80. What is a bulla?
A. Taunted by a bulla fighta
B. A large vesicle
C. Hives
D. A large cyst

Ans: B

81. A comedone is a primary problem only
A. True
B. False

Ans: B

82. Actinic means related to chemically active rays of the electromagnetic spectrum.
A. True
B. False

Ans: A

83. Accumulation of keratin and follicular material that adheres to hair shaft
A. Impetigo
B. Scales
C. Follicular Cast

Ans: C

84. Thickening of the epidermis and/or dermis
A. Callus
B. Lichenification
C. Scaling
D. Lacking in sensitive people

Ans: B

85. Circumscribed, non-palpable area characterized by color change
A. Patch
B. Papule
C. Macule

Ans: C

86. A patch is a large macule
A. True
B. False

Ans: A

87. “Scratch” is a lay term for excoriation
A. True
B. False

Ans: A

88. Dilated hair follicle containing cornified cells and debris
A. Comedone
B. Pustule
C. Furunculosis

Ans: A

89. A cicatrix is:
A. benign
B. a lesion
C. a scar

Ans: C

90. A cyst is a closed sack of pouch under the skin.
A. true
B. false

Ans: A

91. Ecchymosis means:
A. A condition of the ear
B. Skin discoloration
C. Excessive sweating

Ans: B

92. Eczema is an inflammatory condition of the skin.
A. True
B. False

Ans: A

93. Erythema:
A. blood condition
B. red
C. lack of pigmentation

Ans: B

94. Gangrene is necrosis (dead. tissue due to decomposition.
A. True
B. False

Ans: A

95. Herpes is:
A. An S.T.D.
B. a cold sore or fever blister
C. an invasion of pyogenic bacterium

Ans: B

96. Herpes Zoster is most commonly known as:
A. shingles
B. an enlarged fever blister
C. blue colored skin

Ans: A

97. Cyanoderma means:
A. red skin
B. blue skin
C. yellow skin

Ans: B

98. Impetigo is a contagious bacterial skin infection with pustules that rupture.
A. True
B. False

Ans: A

99. Kaposi’s Sarcoma is a cancer associated with:
A. Smokers
B. A.I.D.S.
C. Sun exposure

Ans: B

100. A Laceration is:
A. a pathological change in tissue
B. torn skin
C. laser treatment for skin disease.

Ans: B

101. Metastasis means to:
A. spread infection from one person to another
B. move or spread through the blood stream or lymph nodes
C. abnormal breast condition

Ans: B

102. Benign means non-cancerous.
A. True
B. False

Ans: A

103. A 1st degree burn is:
A. the most severe type of burn
B. superficial burn injuring the top layer of skin
C. the first time the patient has been burned.

Ans: B

104. ___________ means itching caused by dry skin, parasitic infection or disease.
A. Scabies
B. Herpes Zoster
C. Pruritis

Ans: C

105. Tinea ________ means ring worm, athlete’s foot.
A. purpura
B. impetigo
C. corporis

Ans: C

106. Scabies is a contagious skin condition caused by parasitic mites.
A. True
B. False

Ans: A

107. Pediculosis means:
A. Inflammatory condition of the skin.
B. Infestation with lice
C. Irritated and peeling feet.

Ans: B

108. Petechiae is a small _____________ spot on the skin.
A. hemorragic
B. raised
C. discolored

Ans: A

109. Urticaria means:
A. allergic reaction of the skin
B. thickened skin
C. dead tissue

Ans: A

110. SLE stands for_________________ and is an autoimmune disease.
A. squamous laceration ecchymosis
B. systemic lupus erythematosus
C. septic lymphodic edema

Ans: B

111. Similar to a vescle but larger usually more than 5mm in diameter, consisting of clear fluid accumulated within or below the epidermis.
A. Vesicle
B. Pustule
C. Bulla
D. Cyst

Ans: C

112. Dried exudate on the surface of the skin.
A. Plaque
B. Crust
C. Scale

Ans: B

113. A localised area of colour or textural change in the skin
A. Macule
B. Ecchymosis
C. Freckle

Ans: A

114. Alopecia is the absence of hair?
A. True
B. False

Ans: A


115. Atrophic skin is thin, translucent and wrinkled with easily visable blood vessels
A. True
B. False

Ans: A

116. An acute abcess formation in adjacent hair follicles.
A. Carbuncle
B. Furuncle
C. Folliculitis

Ans: B

117. A compressible papule or plaque of dermal oedema, red or white in colour.
A. Urticaria (Missed.
B. Erythema
C. Wheal (Missed.
D. Purpura

Ans: A,C

118. A pustule is a visible collection of pus in a blister. Pustules can be seen in psoriasis
A. True
B. False

Ans: A

119. A purulent inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissue
A. Erythema
B. Ecchymosis
C. Cellulitis

Ans: C

120. A small solid elevation of the skin, generally defined as less than 5mm, maybe flat or domeshaped.
A. Nodule
B. Papule
C. Macule

Ans: B

121. Irritants cause more contact dermatitis than allergens do?
A. True
B. False

Ans: A

122. Contact dermatitis, which of the following are common irritants?
A. Water (Missed.
B. temperature extremes (Missed.
C. Frictional abrasives (Missed.
D. Nickel

Ans: D

123. Atopic eczema induces lichenification
A. True
B. False

Ans: A

124. Treatments used to treat Atopic eczema
A. Emollients (Missed.
B. Antihistamines (Missed.
C. Hot baths
D. Topical steroids (Missed.
E. Antibiotics (Missed.
F. Wear wool clothing

Ans: C

125. Types of Eczema
A. Discoid eczema (Missed.
B. Seborrhoeic Dermatitis (Missed.
C. Venous eczema (Missed.
D. Arthiritic dermatitis
E. Lichen simplex chronicus (Missed.
F. Lichen striatus (Missed.

Ans: D

46 Top ANTI-ADRENERGIC DRUG Multiple Choice Questions and Answers pdf

1. Which of the following drugs is a nonselective alpha receptor antagonist?
a) Prazosin
b) Phentolamine
c) Metoprolol
d) Reserpine

Ans.b

2. Indicate the alpha1-selective antagonist:
a) Phentolamine
b) Dihydroergotamine
c) Prazosin
d) Labetalol

Ans.c

3. Which of the following agents is an alpha2–selective antagonist?
a) Yohimbine
b) Tamsulosin
c)Tolazoline
d)Prazosin

Ans.a

4. Indicate the irreversible alpha receptor antagonist:
a) Tolazoline
b) Labetalol
c) Prazosin
d) Phenoxybenzamine

Ans.d

5. Which of the following drugs is an nonselective beta receptor antagonist?
a) Metoprolol
b) Atenolol
c) Propranolol
d) Acebutolol

Ans.c

6. Indicate the beta1-selective antagonist:
a) Propranolol
b) Metoprolol
c) Carvedilol
d) Sotalol

Ans.b

7. Which of the following agents is a beta2–selective antagonist?
a) Tolazolin
b) Pindolol
c) Ergotamin
d) Butoxamine

Ans.d

8. Indicate the beta adrenoreceptor antagonist, which has partial beta–agonist activity:
a) Propranolol
b) Metoprolol
c) Pindolol
d) Betaxolol

Ans.c

9. Which of the following drugs is a reversible nonselective alpha, beta antagonist?
a) Labetalol
b) Phentolamine
c) Metoprolol
d) Propranolol

Ans.a

10. Indicate the indirect-acting adrenoreceptor blocking drug:
a) Tolazoline
b) Reserpine
c) Carvedilol
d) Prazosin

Ans.b

11. The principal mechanism of action of adrenoreceptor antagonists is:
a) Reversible or irreversible interaction with adrenoreceptors
b) Depletion of the storage of catecholamines
c) Blockade of the amine reuptake pumps
d) Nonselective MAO inhibition

Ans.a

12. Characteristics of alpha-receptor antagonists include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) They cause a fall in peripheral resistance and blood pressure
b) They cause epinephrine reversal (convert a pressor response to a depressor response)
c) Bronchospasm
d) They may cause postural hypotension and reflex tachycardia

Ans.c

13. Which of the following drugs is an imidazoline derivative and a potent competitive antagonist at both alfa1 and alfa2 receptors?
a) Prazosin
b) Labetalol
c) Phenoxybenzamine
d) Phentolamine

Ans.d

14. Characteristics of phentolamine include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Reduction in peripheral resistance
b) Stimulation of responses to serotonin
c) Tachycardia
d) Stimulation of muscarinic, H1 and H2 histamine receptors

Ans.b

15. The principal mechanism of phentolamine-induced tachycardia is:
a) Antagonism of presynaptic alpha2 receptors enhances norepinephrine release, which causes cardiac stimulation via unblocked beta receptors
b) Baroreflex mechanism
c) Direct effect on the heart by stimulation of beta1 receptors
d) Inhibition of transmitter reuptake at noradrenergic synapses

Ans.a

16. Nonselective alpha-receptor antagonists are most useful in the treatment of:
a) Asthma
b) Cardiac arrhythmias
c) Pheochromocytoma
d) Chronic hypertension

Ans.c

17. The main reason for using alpha-receptor antagonists in the management of pheochromocytoma is:
a) Inhibition of the release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla
b) Blockade of alpha2 receptors on vascular smooth muscle results in epinephrine stimulation of unblocked alpha2 receptors
c) Direct interaction with and inhibition of beta2 adrenoreceptors
d) Antagonism to the release of rennin

Ans.b

18. Which of the following drugs is useful in the treatment of pheochromocytoma?
a) Phenylephrine
b) Propranolol
c) Phentolamine
d) Epinephrine

Ans.c

19. Indicate adrenoreceptor antagonist agents, which are used for the management of pheochromocytoma:
a) Selective beta2-receptor antagonists
b) Nonselective beta-receptor antagonists
c) Indirect-acting adrenoreceptor antagonist drugs
d) Αlpha-receptor antagonists

Ans.d

20. The principal adverse effects of phentolamine include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Diarrhea
b) Bradycardia
c) Arrhythmias
d) Myocardial ischemia

Ans.b

21. Indicate the reversible nonselective alpha-receptor antagonist, which is an ergot derivative:
a) Ergotamine
b) Prazosin
c) Phenoxybenzamine
d) Carvedilol

Ans.a

22. Indicate an alpha-receptor antagonist, which binds covalently to alpha receptors, causing irreversible blockade of long duration (14-48 hours or longer):
a) Phentolamine
b) Phenoxybenzamine
c) Ergotamine
d) Prazosin

Ans.b

23. Compared with phentolamine, prazosin has all of the following features EXCEPT:
a) Irreversible blockade of alpha receptors
b) Highly selective for alpha1 receptors
c) The relative absence of tachycardia
d) Persistent block of alfa1 receptors

Ans.a

24. Which of the following statements is not correct?
a) There are at least three subtypes of alfa1 receptors, designated alfa1a, alfa1b and alfa1d
b) ALPHA1a subtype mediates prostate smooth muscle contraction
c) ALPHA1b subtype mediates vascular smooth muscle contraction
d) ALPHA1a subtype mediates both vascular and prostate smooth muscle contraction

Ans.d

25. Indicate an alfa1 adrenoreceptor antagonist, which has great selectivity for alpha1a subtype:
a) Prazosin
b) Tamsulosin
c) Phenoxybenzamine
d) Phentolamine

Ans.b

ANTI-ADRENERGIC DRUG Interview Questions and Answers ::

26. Subtype-selective alpha1 receptor antagonists such as tamsulosin, terazosin, alfusosin are efficacious in:
a) Hyperthyroidism
b) Cardiac arrhythmias
c) Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
d) AsthmaAns.c

27. Indicate an alpha receptor antagonist, which is an efficacious drug in the treatment of mild to moderate systemic hypertension:
a) Phentolamine
b) Tolazoline
c) Ergotamine
d) Prazosin

Ans.d

28. Which of the following alpha receptor antagonists is useful in reversing the intense local vasoconstriction caused by inadvertent infiltration of norepinephrine into subcutaneous tissue during intravenous administration?
a) Propranolol
b) Phentolamine
c) Tamsulosin
d) Ergotamine

Ans.b

29. Beta-blocking drugs-induced chronically lower blood pressure may be associated with theirs effects on:
a) The heart
b) The blood vessels
c) The renin-angiotensin system
d) All of the above

Ans.d

30. Characteristics of beta-blocking agents include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) They occupy beta receptors and competitively reduce receptor occupancy by catecholamines or other beta agonists
b) They do not cause hypotension in individuals with normal blood pressure
c) They induce depression and depleted stores of catecholamines
d) They can cause blockade in the atrioventricular node

Ans.c

31. Beta-receptor antagonists have all of the following cardiovascular effects EXCEPT:
a) The negative inotropic and chronotropic effects
b) Acute effects of these drugs include a fall in peripheral resistance
c) Vasoconstriction
d) Reduction of the release of rennin

Ans.b

32. Beta-blocking agents have all of the following effects except:
a) Increase plasma concentrations of HDL and decrease of VLDL
b) Bronchoconstriction
c) Decrease of aqueous humor prodaction
d) “membrane-stabilizing” action

Ans.a

33. Beta-receptor antagonists cause:
a) Stimulation of lipolysis
b) Stimulation of gluconeogenesis
c) Inhibition of glycogenolysis
d) Stimulation of insulin secretion

Ans.c

34. Propranolol has all of the following cardiovascular effects EXCEPT:
a) It decreases cardiac work and oxygen demand
b) It reduces blood flow to the brain
c) It inhibits the renin secretion
d) It increases the atrioventricular nodal refractory period

Ans.b

35. Propranolol-induced adverse effects include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Bronchoconstriction
b) “supersensitivity” of beta-adrenergic receptors (rapid withdrawal)
c) Hyperglycemia
d) Sedation, sleep disturbances, depression and sexual dysfunction

Ans.c

36. Propranolol is used in the treatment all of the following diseases EXCEPT:
a) Cardiovascular diseases
b) Hyperthyroidism
c) Migraine headache
d) Bronchial asthma

Ans.d

37. Metoprolol and atenolol:
a) Are members of the beta1-selective group
b) Are nonselective beta antagonists
c) Have intrinsic sympathomimetic activity
d) Have an anesthetic action

Ans.a

38. Which of the following beta receptor antagonists is preferable in patients with asthma, diabetes or peripheral vascular diseases?
a) Propranolol
b) Metoprolol
c) Nadolol
d) Timolol

Ans.b

039. Indicate a beta receptor antagonist, which has very long duration of action:
a) Metoprolol
b) Propranolol
c) Nadolol
d) Pindolol

Ans.c

40. Indicate a beta1-selective receptor antagonist, which has very long duration of action:
a) Betaxolol
b) Sotalol
c) Nadolol
d) Metoprolol

Ans.a

41. Which of the following drugs is a nonselective beta-blocker without intrinsic sympathomimetic or local anesthetic activity and used for the treatment of life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias?
a) Propranolol
b) Oxprenolol
c) Sotalol
d) Atenolol

Ans.c

42. Indicate a beta receptor antagonist with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity:
a) Propranolol
b) Oxprenolol
c) Metoprolol
d) Carvedilol

Ans.b

43. Pindolol, oxprenolol have all of the following properties EXCEPT:
a) They are nonselective beta antagonists
b) They have no partial agonist activity
c) They are less likely to cause bradycardia and abnormalities in plasma lipids
d) They are effective in hypertension and angina

Ans.b

44. Which of the following drugs has both alfa1-selective and beta-blocking effects?
a) Labetalol
b) Betaxolol
c) Propranolol
d) Timolol

Ans.a

45. Characteristics of carvedilol include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) It is a beta1 -selective antagonist
b) It has both alfa1-selective and beta-blocking effects
c) It attenuates oxygen free radical-initiated lipid peroxidation
d) It inhibits vascular smooth muscle mitogenesis

Ans.a

46. Indicate the adrenoreceptor antagonist drug, which is a rauwolfia alkaloid:
a) Prazosin
b) Propranolol
c) Reserpine
d) Phentolamine

Ans.c 

99 Top ANESTHESIOLOGY Multiple Choice Questions and Answers pdf

1.Local anesthetic causing Methaemoglobinaemia
a)Lignocaine
b)Prilocaine
c) Bupivacaine
d) All of the above

Ans: b

2.Which of the following anesthetic have half life more than 2hrs?
a) Bupivacaine
b) Lignocaine
c) Mepivacaine
d) Etidocaine
e) Chlorprocaine

Ans:a

3.Which of the following is an Amide local anesthetic drug?
a) Bupivacaine
b)Benzocaine
c) Procaine
d) Cocaine

Ans:a

ANESTHESIOLOGY Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

4.Bier block is used for
a) Sub arachnoid block
b) IV regional block
c) Extradural block
d) Local anesthesia

Ans:b

5.During epidural analgesia the following points suggests that needle is in the extradural space
a) Loss of resistance sign
b) Negative pressure sign
c) Mackintosh extradural space indicator
d) All of the above

Ans:d

6.Epidural block is indicated in all except:
a) Patients in hypovolemia
b) Patients with asthma and bronchitis
c) Post-operative pain relief
d) Obstetric analgesia

Ans:a

7.Epidural anesthesia is preferred to spinal anesthesia because
a) Hypotension is absent
b) Dura is not penetrated
c) Low dose of anesthetic is used
d) Level of block easily changed

Ans:b

8.Hypersensitive xylocaine used for spinal anesthesia means
a) 5% xylocaine
b) 2% xylocaine with adrenaline
c) 2% xylocaine with dextran
d) 2% xylocaine

Ans:a

9.Post-spinal headache is prevented by
a) Use of thinner needle
b) NS AIDs
c) Preanaesthetic medication
d) Plenty of oral fluids

Ans:a

10.Lignocaine can be used in all except
a) Ventricular fibrillation
b) Spinal anaesthesia
c) Epidural anaesthesia
d) Convulsions

Ans:d

11.Local anesthetic with vasoconstrictor effect
a) Procaine
b) Cocaine
c)Lidocaine
d)Dubicaine

Ans:b

12.Black tongue, black teeth, visual and tactile hallucinations seen in poisoning due to
a) Opium
b) Heroin
c) Cocaine
d) Cannabis

Ans:c

13.Longest acting local anesthetic solution is
a) Lignocaine
b) Chlorprocaine
c) Amethocaine
d) Bupivacaine

Ans:d

14.Post spinal headache can be prevented by
a) Preventing fall of blood pressure
b) Encouraging early ambulation
c) Weaker solution of local anesthetic
d) Finer lumbar puncture needle

Ans:d

15.The following statements about Bupivacaine are true except
a) Must never be injected into a vein
b) More cardiotoxic than Lignocaine
c) 0.25 percent is effective for sensory block
d) Long acting drug

Ans:c

16.The effect of spinal anesthesia on bowels includes
a) Increased peristalsis
b) Contraction
c) Dilatation
d) Atony

Ans:b

17.All are Amide linked Local anesthetics except
a) Procaine
b) Bupivacaine
c)Lidocaine
d)Dibucaine

Ans:a

18.Percentage of xylocaine used in spinal anesthesia
a)1%
b)2%
c)4%
d)0.5%
e)0.5%

Ans:d

19.Extradural anesthesia decreases risk of
a) Headache
b) Hypotension
c) Meningitis
d) Arachnoiditis

Ans:a

20.The complication seen more often in Epidural anesthesia is
a) Hypotension
b) Headache
c) Urinary retention
d) Meningitis

Ans:c

21.The first of the following to be blocked in spinal anesthesia includes
a) Pre-ganglionic sympathetic fibers
b) Sensory fibers
c) Motor fibers
d) Fibers carrying proprioceptive sensation

Ans:a

22.Spinal anesthesia is preferred in lower abdominal surgeries because it:
a) Gives deep analgesia
b) Gives good relaxation of abdominal muscles
c) Shrinks intestines so that other viscera are seen well
d) Patient is conscious and co-operative

Ans:c

23.The pathway to be blocked earliest in spinal anesthesia is
a) Autonomic
b) Motor fibers
c) Fine sensory fibers
d) Coarse sensory fibers

Ans:a

24.All of the following are effective topically except
a) Procaine
b) Cocaine
c)Lidocaine
d) Amefhocaine

Ans:a

25.The local analgesic drugs are deposited in spinal anesthesia at the space, which lies between
a) Dura mater and vertebral column
b) Dura mater and arachnoid
c) Pia mater and arachnoid
d) Pia mater and grey mater

Ans:c

26.The site of action of an intra thecal narcotics is the
a) Axonal membrane
b) Dorsal horn of the spinal cord
c) Ventral horn of the spinal cord
d) Opiate receptors within the brain

Ans:b

27.The local anesthetic which is not useful for tropical use
a) Procaine
b) Xylocaine
c)Prilocaine
d) Cocaine

Ans:a

28.Epidural analgesia is suitable for
a) Analgesia in a patient with fractured ribs
b)Trans-urethral resection of the prostrate gland
c) Intra-operative and post-operative pain relief in cholecystectomy
d) All of the above

Ans:d

29.Post spinal hypotension all are true except
a) Paralysis of nerve supply from Tl -L2
b) Leakage of CSF through puncture site
c) Trendelenberg position is good
d) Elevation of lower limbs without head low position is useful

Ans:a

30.Which of the following is an ester linked local anesthesia?
a) Cocaine
b) Lidocaine
c) Bupivacaine
d) Dubicaine

Ans:a

31. The administration of local anesthesia may result in the following except
a) Tachycardia
b) Vasodilatation
c) Myocardial depression
d) Seizures

Ans:a

32.Shortest acting local anesthetic
a) Procaine
b) Xylocaine
c) Bupivacaine
d)Chloprocaine

Ans:d

33.Local anesthetics act by
a) Forming area of nerve block along a neuron
b) Binding to calcium receptor on nerve membrane
c) Blocking calcium channels of nerve membrane
d) Inhibiting the sodium pump

Ans:d

34.Subarachnoid block as anesthesia is contraindicated in
a) Diabetic gangrene
b) Burgers disease
c) Atherosclerotic gangrene
d) Full stomach
e) Hemophilia

Ans:e

35.All are vasodilator except
a) Procaine
b)Lidocaine
c) Cocaine
d) Chlorprocaine

Ans:c

36.Epidural narcotic is preferred over epidural LA because it causes
a) Less respiratory depression
b) No retention of urine
c) No motor paralysis
d) Less dose required

Ans:c

37.Last to recover in spinal anesthesia is
a) Pain
b) Motor
c) Proprioception
d) Pre-ganglionic sympathetic fibers

Ans:d

38.Cranial nerve not involved in spinal anesthesia
a) 1 st and 10th
b) 3rd and 6th
c) 2nd and 4th
d) 7th and 8th

Ans:a

39.A local anesthetic that is ineffective topically is:
a) Cocaine
b) Mepivacaine
c) xylocaine
d) Lidocaine
e) Tetracaine

Ans:b

40.Which of the following local anesthetic is more safe in surface and infiltrating anesthesia
a) Procaine
b) Cocaine
c) Lidocaine
d) Amethocaine

Ans:c

41.Side effects of lignocaine are all except
a) Sedation
b) Vomiting
c) Convulsion
d) Tinnitus

Ans:a

42.All are pierced in Lumbar Puncture except
a) Post longitudinal ligament
b) Ligamentum Flavum
c) Interspinous Ligament
d) Supraspinous ligament

Ans:a

43.The most common complication in spinal anesthesia is
a) Post spinal headache
b) Hypotension
c) Meningitis
d) Arrhythmia

Ans:b

44.An increased dose of spinal anesthetic is indicated in a patient who has
a) Ascites
b) Increased height of the patient
c) Is pregnant
d) Obese

Ans:b

45.All are surface anesthetics except
a) Lignocaine
b) Bupivacaine
c) Procaine
d) Cinchocaine

Ans:b

46.aximum dose of xylocaine for local anaesthesia
a)200mg
b)250mg
c)300mg
d)650mg
e)700mg

Ans:a

47.Epidural space lies between
a) Pia and arachnoid
b) Dura and arachnoid
c) Dura and vertebral column
d) Pia mater and grey mater

Ans:c

48.Commonest Cranial nerve affected in spinal anaesthesia
a) 2nd
b) 3rd
c) 4th
d) 6th
e) 10th

Ans:d

49.Cauda Equina syndrome can be caused by *
a) Spinal anaesthesia
b) Epidural anaesthesia
c) Both
d) None

Ans:a

50.Index of potency of general anesthesia
a) Minimum alveolar concentration
b) Diffusion coefficient
c) Deed space concentration
d) Alveolar blood concentration + blood concentration

Ans:a

ANESTHESIALOGY Objective type Questions and Answers ::

51.Thiopentone if injected accidentally into an artery, the first symptom is:
a) Analgesia
b) Pain
c) Paralysis
d) Skin ulceration

Ans:b

52.Loss of pharyngeal reflex is more with which anaesthetic?
a) Isoflurane
b) Ketamine
c) N20/02/Narcotic
d) None of the above

Ans:a

53.Hypotension in Anaesthesia can be induced by all of the following drugs except:
a) Trimetaphan
b) Sodium Nitroprusside
c) Pancuronium
d) Halothane
e) Hexamethonium

Ans:c

54.Which anaesthesia drug is eliminated by Hoffman’s degradation?
a) Buprenorphine
b) Atracurium
c) Bupivacaine
d) Procaine
Ans:b

55.Highest analgesic effect is a feature of
a) Ketamine
b) Thiopentone
c) Propofur
d) Ethomidate
Ans:a

56.Treatment of inadvertent injection of pentothal intra arterially
a) Injection of procaine into the artery
b) Papavarine intra arterially
c) Heparin IV
d) Stellate ganglion block
e) All of the above
Ans:e

57.Succinyl choline is short acting due to
a) Rapid excretion
b) Poor absorption
c) Rapid hydrolysis
d) None
Ans:c

58.All are true regarding Halothane except
a) Non-inflammable
b) Boils at 50 C
c) It is stable when exposed to light
d) Heavy, colorless with characteristic sweet odour
Ans:c

59.Best Uterine relaxation is seen with
a) Chloroform
b) Nitrous Oxide
c)Ether
d)Halothne
Ans:d

60.The d-tubocurarine acts at
a) Myoneural junction
b) Pre-synoptic of parasympathetic nerves
c) Post-synoptic of parasympathetic nerves
d) Post-synoptic of sympathetic nerves
Ans:a

62.Which of the following is eliminated by Hoffmann elimination
a) Althesin
b) D-tubocurarine
c) Pancuronium
d) Atracurium
Ans:d

63.Mechanism of action of D-tubocurarine is
a) Depolarizing
b) Non-depolarizing
c) Blockage of sodium channels
d) Blockage of potassium influx
Ans:b

64.Which of the following anesthetic agent sensitizes the heart to adrenaline
a) Halothane
b) Enflurane
c) Isotherane
d) Nitrous oxide

Ans:a

65.Definitive sign of plane 1 of anaesthesia is
a) Fixation of eyeball
b) Papillary dilatation
c) Blurring of vision
d) Intercostal paralysis

Ans:a

66.Which of the following anaesthetic agents has been superseded because of cardiotoxicity
a) cyclopropane
b) Halothane
c) Chloroform
d) Diethyl ether

Ans:c

67.The following is a steroidal anesthetic agent
a) Althesin
b) Propanidid
c) Methohexitone
d) Di-isoprophyl

Ans:a

68.Ketamine causes all except:
a) Potent analgesic effect
b) Muscle relaxation
c) Completely excreted by liver
d) Used in hypotension

Ans:b

69.Intubation dose of pancuronium is
a)0.02mg/kg
b)0.06mg/kg
c)0.08mg/kg
d)1.2mg/kg

Ans:c

70.Which of the following anesthetics can be self-administered by the patient during labor
a) Trichloroethylene
b) Ethyl chloride
c) Halothane
d) Enflurane

Ans:a

71.Not an intravenous anaesthetic
a) Etomidate
b) Thiopentone
c) Ketamine
d) Cyclopropane

Ans:d

72.One of the following causes delirium during recovery phase:
a)Ketamine
b) Thipentone sodium
c) Halothane
d) Cyclopropane

Ans:a

73.Best analgesic is
a) Ether
b) Halothane
c) Trilene
d) Chloroform

Ans:a

74.The most common cause of death of mother undergoing emergency caesarean section when general anaesthesia is being administered is
a) Over dose of inhalational anaesthetic agent
b) Circulatory failure
c) Acid aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs
d) Renal failure

Ans:c

75.The activity of muscles of eyeball during ether anaesthesia is well marked
a) Stage I
b) Stage II
c) Stage III
d) Stage IV

Ans:a

76.Regarding halothane, the correct statement is
a) Large range of safety
b) Maintenance of anaesthesia
c) Does not cause arrhythmias
d) Can be given in hepatitis patients

Ans:b

77.Anesthetic agent that predisposes to maximum arrhythmias
a)Isoflurane
b) Enflurane
c) Halothane
d) Ether

Ans:c

78.The following has the most potent analgesic action
a) Chloroform
b)Halothane
c) Diethyl ether
d) Trichloroethylene

Ans:d

79.Which of the following intravenous anesthetic agents is the drug of choice in shocked individuals
a) Thiopentone sodium
b) Propanidid
c) Ketamine
d) Althesin

Ans:c

80.In which of the following is thiopentone contra indicated
a) Head injury
b) Retinal Surgery
c) Diabetes
d) Porphyri

Ans:d

81.Color of Halothane cylinder is
a) Red
b) Purple
c) White
d) green

Ans:a

82.Shortest acting muscle relaxant
a) Pancuronium
b) Atraurium
c) Mivacuriun
d) vecuonium

Ans:c

83.Phase II blocker is
a) Suxamethonium
b) Atracuronium
c) DTC
d) Pancuronium

Ans:a

84.Dose of ketamine by IV Route is
a) 0.5 mg/kg
b) 1 mg/kg
c) 2 mg/kg
d) 5mg/kg

Ans:c

85.The following are muscle relaxants except
a) Decamethonium
b) Suxamethonium
c) Hexamethonium
d) Pancuronium

Ans:c

86.The reversal of neuromuscular blockade with d-TC is done with
a) Scoline
b) Neostigmine
c) Atropine
d) Dantrolene

Ans:b

87.Reversal of muscle relaxation is needed for the following
a) Pancuronium and curare
b) Succinyl choline
c) Both
d) none

Ans:a

88.Depolarizing agents are associated with all of the following, except
a) Muscle fasciculation’s preceding the onset of block
b) Absence of post tetanic potentiation
c) Potentiation of block by anticholinesterases
d) Reversal by anticholinesterases

Ans:d

89.Thiopentone is used for induction anesthesia, because it is
a) Smooth induction
b) Rapidly redistributed
c) Easy to administer
d) Easy to monitor

Ans:a

90.Maximum emesis causing anaesthetic
a) N20
b) Diethyl ether
c) Chloroform
d) Thiopental

Ans:c

91.Liver damage can be induced by
a) Halothane
b) Ether
c) Trilene
d) Nitrous oxide

Ans:a

92.Muscle relaxant contra indicated in CRF
a) Gallamine
b) Succinyl choline
c) Tubocurare
d) Pancuronium

Ans:a

93. Neuromuscular blocker used in hepatic and renal failure
a) Scoline
b) Tubocurarin
c) Decamethonium
d) Atracuronium

Ans:d

94.Tubocurarine action is easily reversed! by
a) Atropine
b) Neostigmine
c) Edrophonium
d) Galathamin

Ans:b

95.All are seen in ketamine anesthesia except
a) Hypertension
b) Hallucinations
c) Bronchospasm
d) Analgesia

Ans:c

96.Use of which drug during anaesthesia may cause muscle spasm
a) Physostigmine
b) Bupreonorphine
c) Fentanyl
d) D-tubocurare

Ans:c

97.Colour of Nitrous oxide cylinder is
a) Grey
b) French Blue
c) Black
d) Black with white arms

Ans:b

98.An anaesthetic agent with boiling temperature more than 75 C is:
a) Ether
b) Halothane
c) Cyclopropane
d) Methoxyfluorane

Ans:d

99.The following antagonize the visceral side effects of neostigmine used in eversal of DTC blockade
a) Atropine
b) Nicotine
c) Pilocarpine
d) Pyridostigmine

Ans:a